Not to go all Candance Owens, but I actually don’t understand why Josh Hammer tweeted “public execution” hours after the assassination of Charlie Kirk.  Was he saying that Kirk just experienced a public execution, or that we just witnessed one?  It’s an odd thing to post.  

First I thought that the conservative pundit was referring to the Iryena Zarustka fatal stabbing.  Maybe Hammer meant that the guy that did that, the perp, deserved a public execution.  Because he retweeted a Trump tweet on Sep 9 to that effect, a day before the Kirk assassination.  I was more than happy to give Hammer the benefit of the doubt– like clearly he was not referring to the Kirk assassination which hadn’t happened yet. 

What I don’t understand is why Hammer would tweet hours after the Kirk assassination “public execution,” because he surely was not talking about Iryna Zaruska’s killer after that.  

Kirk was assassinated at 12:23pm, Sep 10th.  Here’s Hammer’s tweet Sep 10 5:57.  So clearly he was referring to Kirk–does he deny that?  Hey, not saying Hammer was involved in any way, but I actually can’t explain this.  I’d like to, but I literally can’t.